Netfriend:

It would seem that in your view, early Christians had the expectation for the Lord’s return in his generation and the expectation of the imminent coming of the Son of Man in judgment on Jerusalem. It would have been very difficult for the believers in the first century to distinguish these two expectations. On what basis could they make such a distinction?

End of Question.

~~~

Here’s Bishop Wright’s response:

Yes indeed, and it’s interesting about the Mk 13/ Mat 24 question, because for years I took Dick France’s view that Mt 24 switches topic at v. 36. (Please feel free to post this and the following.)

I do think that for the first generation it must have been difficult to sort out which events might happen when and how it would all relate to the events of which Paul writes in Romans 8.18-25. But I also note that he can write of the ‘day of the Lord’ as something of which the Thessalonians might hear by letter (2 Thess 2.1-2), and one assumes therefore that this cannot be the event(s) spoken of in Romans 8, 1 Cor 15.21-28, Ephesians 1.10, or Revelation 19–22… So there was some differentiation possible.

Good discussion topic for Advent!

Tom

+Tom Wright

Auckland Castle

Co. Durham DL14 7NR